Decrees approved today did not even apply to Catalonia

A post on X claims that a Spanish state law excludes Catalonia and that those defending it present this as an achievement. For now, the accusation is a political complaint: Spain has for decades applied laws that do not take effect equally across its territory, and the most established case is in regional tax autonomy.

A post on X denounces that a law "excludes Catalonia" and claims that those who back it flaunt it as a merit. The text does not specify which article causes that exclusion, so the accusation is, for now, a political complaint and not a legal conclusion. The underlying debate is not new: there are state laws that do not apply equally everywhere.

## Why a law may not apply equally across the whole territory

**Article 149** of the **1978 Constitution** distributes powers between the State and the autonomous communities.

In housing, the **Estatut de Catalunya** (Organic Law 6/2006, of 19 July) grants exclusive jurisdiction to the Generalitat. That is why many state laws include additional provisions adjusting their application in territories with their own legislation.

## The fiscal precedent: the Basque and Navarrese systems

The most established example is in taxation. The **Basque Country** and **Navarra** are financed through the **concierto económico** (economic agreement), governed by Law 12/2002, of 23 May, and Law 28/1990, of 26 December.

They collect their own taxes and pay an agreed amount to the State. A state law not reaching everywhere equally is not a recent anomaly.

None of this confirms that the law in question excludes Catalonia. Verifying it requires reading the published text and, if in doubt, checking the official source.